See comment above. Question on #69 though. Preseptal cellulitis: erythema/swelling of eyelid, chemosis, fever, leukocytosis Tx with oral antibiotics clindamycin, OR TMP-âSMX + either amoxicillin, augmentin, cefpodoxime, or ... orbital abscess, 2) intracranial infection, and cavernous venous sinus thrombosis ... in persistent/recurrent ⦠Tayal (2006) Acad Emerg Med 13(4): 384-8 [PubMed] ⦠Thank you for this exceptional resource. that helped clarify my confusion. She is likely to have another immune impairment in addition to the 1 for which she was tested, C. She should receive prophylactic courses of wide-spectrum antibiotics to prevent infections, D. Her phagocytes can only perform extracellular killing, E. She is susceptible to all mycotic infections. *, D – Below the dentate line, anal cancer drainage is superficial inguinal. Checking the stools for larvae is the most sensitive test. A. Degradation of the antigen by the proteases in the phagolysosome, B. Translocation of the antigen into the endosome after phagocytosis, C. Translocation of the antigen into the endoplasmic reticulum via TAP proteins, D. Binding of the peptide to MHC class II, E. Interaction of the MHC class II complex with its target CD4+ T cell. A Historian’s Breakdown of the Siege of Gondor, How Purdue University’s President Froze Tuition, It's Spring Already? While this question theoretically requires the imaging to answer correctly, the only other choice that is feasible is D, which is known as SMA syndrome. E – von Willebrand disease is by far the most common inherited bleeding diathesis. I’d be happy for someone to step in and do a better job on that explanation. The patient is in acute distress. Some folks convert more, some less.*. A variety of brain and lung pathologies are possible etiologies, with lung cancer (of any type) being an important cause. I wouldn’t be surprised if someone out there does, but I wouldn’t know. Main nitrate contraindications are erectile dysfunction meds, hypotension, large pericardial effucion, large RV infarct, or severe aortic stenosis. Past medical history is significant for recurrent infections by the same organism. Based on the correct answer choice, the person is now in metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation. This question has been discussed in the comments of this post and the prior sets (2016 and 2014 I think). Learn about the … Which of the following would be the definitive treatment of this patientâs condition? MCAT is a registered trademark of the Association of American Medical Colleges (AAMC). 5 - Recurrent, deep skin or organ abscesses . A group of mice are inoculated with the virus, and blood is subsequently drawn from these animals at various intervals to check immunoglobulin levels. V2 exits via foramen rotundum. Primary, definitive, most critical step in Skin Abscess management; Antibiotic indications (in addition to Incision and Drainage). E – DMD is X-linked. These are used in the neonatal screen but are not helpful for GSDs. Expression of selectins on the surface of endothelial cells, C. Formation of tight bounds between leukocytes and endothelial selectins, E. Inhibition of the interaction between platelet endothelial cell adhesion molecules (PECAMs) on the surfaces of leukocytes and endothelial cells. D –Diffuse low-level ST elevation means pericarditis. Prostatic abscess should be suspected in patients who have recurrent UTI that initially improves but recurs after the antibiotic is discontinued. This gentleman has a peptic ulcer, which we know is caused predominately by H. pylori infection. E – I’m going to point out that a normal healthy kid with no cardiac history or symptoms and no family history of sudden cardiac death for a pre-sports physical is probably going to have a benign exam no matter what you think you hear. 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